Once again the Post-Gazette has chosen to publish a letter that claims God as a source of moral guidance in the matter of same-sex marriage ("Same-Sex Sinfulness," April 3). If Daniel J. Robinson uses the Bible as source of God's word, then I ask: Do you then believe slavery to be moral? The Old Testament is full of laws concerning the treatment of slaves; clearly, keeping slaves is condoned.
When Jesus preached, did he tell his disciples "No man shall be the property of another"? No, instead he claimed he was not here to abolish the law of the Old Testament. Later in the New Testament, slaves are implored to obey their masters.
These are the passages that many quoted two centuries ago in order to justify slavery. How can any consistent moral system choose to accept Bible teachings on homosexuality yet reject its clear teaching on slavery?
Upper St. Clair